meta user
network profile
| bio | website | verdewek.com/work |
|---|---|---|
| location | Galicia, Spain | |
| age | 45 | |
| visits | member for | 1 year, 5 months |
| seen | May 15 at 16:15 | |
| stats | profile views | 22 |
I am a researcher at Incipit, where I read, write, think, have coffee and also write code every now and then.
I have extensive experience in method engineering, software methodologies, conceptual modelling, software development techniques, technical writing and project management.
I'm also a partner in two businesses where we develop large software applications and services, and I participate in standardisation projects with ISO and AENOR.
You can also find me on LinkedIn and I keep a couple of blogs.
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Feb 15 |
comment |
Convention for group-recited, gender-specific, self-referencing pronouns Politicians especially, in these times of political correctness, very often use the adage "nosotros y nosotras", or "ciudadanos y ciudadanas", in order to look aware of gender issues and therefore appeal to a larger audience. Whether or not this makes grammatical sense, I am not judging. |
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Feb 13 |
revised |
Origin of 'r' in 'rencontrar' Fixed Spanish spelling. |
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Feb 13 |
suggested | suggested edit on Origin of 'r' in 'rencontrar' |
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Feb 13 |
answered | Origin of 'r' in 'rencontrar' |
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Feb 10 |
comment |
Is there a trick to remembering 'llevar' and 'traer'? I am afraid the distinction between "llevar" and "traer" is as tricky as that between "ir" and "venir" or "come" and "go" in English. Use is idiomatic and I don't think that strict rules can be enunciated. |
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Feb 8 |
comment |
Translation of “desafuero” to English Not only. Desafuero also has a common meaning, which is what I explain in my answer. Please check the DRAE. |
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Feb 8 |
answered | Translation of “desafuero” to English |
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Feb 8 |
comment |
Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? @hippietrail: I know, and I empathise. I lived and worked in Australia for a few years in heritage-related matters, and I know the situation relatively well. At least, the Australian government has officially apologised for the suffering caused (albeit cynically, perhaps); in Spain, there are ex-members of the dictatorial regime still holding public office, and the judge who tried to investigate crimes committed during this sad period of our history has been accused, harassed and removed from his post. See e.g. politica.elpais.com/politica/2012/02/08/actualidad/… |
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Feb 8 |
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Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? @Juanillo: I am not despising anyone. Sorry if I can't convey that clearly. |
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Feb 8 |
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Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? @Juanillo: Also, and wrt your statement that the dictatorship has finished, that is technically true, but have a look at any major Spanish newspaper any day. News about Franco's regime and it's consequences are all over the place. Other countries which went through dictatorships such as Germany or Italy achieved closure afterwards, but Spain did not. Dictatorship did end, but wounds remain open. |
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Feb 8 |
comment |
Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? @Juanillo: What I said and what you say are not in conflict. Please read my answer carefully and try to avoid attaching additional assumptions to my words. For example, I never said that Spanish is "the language of the supporters of the dictatorship"; that's a silly idea. In fact, there is a single language: both "Spanish" and "Castilian" refer to the same one. It's a matter of what word you use and what it connotes. |
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Feb 7 |
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Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? I find this answer simplistic. It obviates the fact that usage of these two terms is heavily loaded with politics and emotion for many people, at least in Spain. RAE may define things this way, but since history is written by the victors, and RAE is predominantly composed by Castilian speakers, they systematically ignore the perspective of the "losers". Please see my answer on this page for more details. |
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Feb 7 |
comment |
Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? @Joze: I agree with you, totally. I don't blame anyone for not being literate about the history of Spain; you are completely right that we cannot expect everyone to know about everything. However, I would blame someone who opines about something complex and with deep implications in a frivolous, superficial manner. In summary: using the term "Spanish" to convey a simple, unloaded meaning in a pragmatic way is OK; pontificating that the difference between "Spanish" and "Castilian" is just pedantic is not OK. |
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Feb 7 |
comment |
Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? Adding my answer now. Hope it sheds some light. |
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Feb 7 |
answered | Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”? |
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Feb 6 |
comment |
“Iros” instead of “idos” (imperative of verb “ir”) @hippietrail: Glad that you agree. I just left a comment to your answer to the question that you mention which, unfortunately, is not very positive, I am afraid. I hope that, at least, it sheds some light. |
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Feb 5 |
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“Iros” instead of “idos” (imperative of verb “ir”) @hippietrail: Regarding your first comment, you should not forget that RAE is mostly composed of people from a predominantly Castillian culture, which historically has been dominant on other cultures in what today is Spain. In fact, there are many people who don't agree with RAE on this issues. You cannot ignore this when assessing RAE's position on language. |
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Feb 4 |
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Translating “to wind up (doing something)” As you can see in meta, most people seem to agree that explicitly stating the regional scope of your answer is the best way to go. That was my original suggestion. |
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Feb 3 |
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Translating “to wind up (doing something)” Oh well. I think that a bit of context is always good, but anyway. |
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Feb 3 |
comment |
Translation of the idiom: “To wind (somebody) up” +1 "Tocar las narices" is also highly informal but not rude. |
