2,595 reputation
417
bio website about.me/cesargon
location Galicia, Spain
age 47
visits member for 3 years
seen Nov 18 at 13:53

I am a researcher at Incipit, where I read, write, think, have coffee and also write code every now and then.

I have experience in method engineering, software methodologies, conceptual modelling, software development techniques, cultural heritage, technical writing and project management.

I'm also a partner in two businesses where we develop large software applications and services, and I participate in standardisation projects with ISO and AENOR.

You can also find me on LinkedIn and I keep a couple of blogs.


Feb
13
answered Origin of 'r' in 'rencontrar'
Feb
10
comment Is there a trick to remembering 'llevar' and 'traer'?
I am afraid the distinction between "llevar" and "traer" is as tricky as that between "ir" and "venir" or "come" and "go" in English. Use is idiomatic and I don't think that strict rules can be enunciated.
Feb
8
comment Translation of “desafuero” to English
Not only. Desafuero also has a common meaning, which is what I explain in my answer. Please check the DRAE.
Feb
8
answered Translation of “desafuero” to English
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@hippietrail: I know, and I empathise. I lived and worked in Australia for a few years in heritage-related matters, and I know the situation relatively well. At least, the Australian government has officially apologised for the suffering caused (albeit cynically, perhaps); in Spain, there are ex-members of the dictatorial regime still holding public office, and the judge who tried to investigate crimes committed during this sad period of our history has been accused, harassed and removed from his post. See e.g. politica.elpais.com/politica/2012/02/08/actualidad/…
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Juanillo: I am not despising anyone. Sorry if I can't convey that clearly.
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Juanillo: Also, and wrt your statement that the dictatorship has finished, that is technically true, but have a look at any major Spanish newspaper any day. News about Franco's regime and it's consequences are all over the place. Other countries which went through dictatorships such as Germany or Italy achieved closure afterwards, but Spain did not. Dictatorship did end, but wounds remain open.
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Juanillo: What I said and what you say are not in conflict. Please read my answer carefully and try to avoid attaching additional assumptions to my words. For example, I never said that Spanish is "the language of the supporters of the dictatorship"; that's a silly idea. In fact, there is a single language: both "Spanish" and "Castilian" refer to the same one. It's a matter of what word you use and what it connotes.
Feb
7
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
I find this answer simplistic. It obviates the fact that usage of these two terms is heavily loaded with politics and emotion for many people, at least in Spain. RAE may define things this way, but since history is written by the victors, and RAE is predominantly composed by Castilian speakers, they systematically ignore the perspective of the "losers". Please see my answer on this page for more details.
Feb
7
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Joze: I agree with you, totally. I don't blame anyone for not being literate about the history of Spain; you are completely right that we cannot expect everyone to know about everything. However, I would blame someone who opines about something complex and with deep implications in a frivolous, superficial manner. In summary: using the term "Spanish" to convey a simple, unloaded meaning in a pragmatic way is OK; pontificating that the difference between "Spanish" and "Castilian" is just pedantic is not OK.
Feb
7
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
Adding my answer now. Hope it sheds some light.
Feb
7
answered Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
Feb
6
comment “Iros” instead of “idos” (imperative of verb “ir”)
@hippietrail: Glad that you agree. I just left a comment to your answer to the question that you mention which, unfortunately, is not very positive, I am afraid. I hope that, at least, it sheds some light.
Feb
5
comment “Iros” instead of “idos” (imperative of verb “ir”)
@hippietrail: Regarding your first comment, you should not forget that RAE is mostly composed of people from a predominantly Castillian culture, which historically has been dominant on other cultures in what today is Spain. In fact, there are many people who don't agree with RAE on this issues. You cannot ignore this when assessing RAE's position on language.
Feb
4
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
As you can see in meta, most people seem to agree that explicitly stating the regional scope of your answer is the best way to go. That was my original suggestion.
Feb
3
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
Oh well. I think that a bit of context is always good, but anyway.
Feb
3
comment Translation of the idiom: “To wind (somebody) up”
+1 "Tocar las narices" is also highly informal but not rude.
Feb
3
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
Yes, but where? "It seems to me this is so in Chile" and " It seems to me this is so everywhere" are very different statements. "It seems to me" expresses uncertainty, not geographic scope.
Feb
3
comment Translating “to wind up (doing something)”
I disagree that "terminar" is more common and/or natural. It might be so in certain regions, but not throughout the Hispanosphere. When making this kind of statement, I think it's good to qualify it with the region you are applying it to, like I did in my own answer.
Feb
2
revised “It was great to see you”
Clarified ambiguous line by splitting it in two