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seen Nov 27 '12 at 22:52

Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@CesarGon "The term Spanish, to the mind of many people, means imposition, domination, banning of their native vehicle for communication" then following the reasoning the Spanish people must be those who impose, dominate and banned. It just links the term "Spanish" to the dictatorship. Of course wounds are still open because culprits hasn't been judged and victims are still there, but there were also victims in places like Castilla, Andalucía not only in the Basque Country, Galicia or Catalonia. It despises the people from America because you don't take their language into account.
Feb
8
comment Is there a difference between “español” and “castellano”?
@Joze I agree you and but I don't agree CesarGon. The dictatorship imposed the Spanish language, but it finished. It's quite unfair for all the Spanish that the term "Spanish" can be understood just as the language of the supporters of the dictatorship. Spanish existed before the dictatorship and was spoken not only in Castilla but also in the rest of Spain (it doesn't mean that there weren't others). Spanish is just a common language among all Spanish citizens and I don't want that all those supporters of the dictatorship can appropiate on the language. It's not theirs.
Feb
7
comment Translation of “desafuero” to English
"afuera" doesn't have anything to do with "desafuero". "Desafuero" comes from "fuero" which is a type of privilege.
Feb
7
comment Translation of “desafuero” to English
Could you please post the sentence you saw? I'm quite curious to read it.
Feb
7
comment pensaban que no había suficientes habitaciones VS no pensaban que hubieran suficientes habitaciones
@Flimzy In my English classes I've always been told by the English native teacher that I should say "I don't think there is ..." instead of "I think there isn't ..." because native people expect a positive statement after the verb think (so it was quite unnatural to say "I think there isn't..."). In Spanish it's very common to use a negative statement after "pensar" (maybe even more common than using "no pienso").
Feb
5
comment What does “le” mean here?
@Cadenza yeah you're right it's an indirect object because it's not referring to the subject of the sentence. I've updated the answer.
Feb
5
revised What does “le” mean here?
added 318 characters in body
Feb
5
comment ¿Cómo se describe la temperatura?
@César From RAE definition of "hacer": "35. impers. Expresa la cualidad o estado del tiempo atmosférico. Hace calor, frío, buen día Hace bueno Mañana hará malo". So it's correct. I don't really know why you think it's not. Of course you can also say "El día está soleado" but it doesn't mean that "hace sol" is wrong. buscon.rae.es/draeI/SrvltConsulta?LEMA=hacer
Feb
4
comment ¿Cómo se describe la temperatura?
@César in Spain "hace sol" is one of the most common ways of saying "it's sunny"
Feb
4
answered Translation of mild, medium, and hot (food spiciness)
Feb
4
answered What does “le” mean here?
Feb
3
comment Translation of mild, medium, and hot (food spiciness)
I'd use "poco/ligeramente picante", "picante" and "muy picante". "leve" and "medio" are not natural ways for speaking about spiciness. If something is not spicy or slightly spicy we would say it is "suave".
Feb
3
comment Happy Birthday songs in Spanish
Cumpleaños feliz, cumpleaños feliz, te desean tus amigos de Parchís ;) (song usually heard in pubs when it's the birthday of someone)
Jan
31
comment Translation of “to be fluent (in a language)”
In English it means "Able to express oneself readily and effortlessly" thefreedictionary.com/fluent that is "fluidez". "hablar con fluidez" only refers to the speaking just because you're using the verb "hablar".
Jan
31
comment Usage of fea and rico
OK, I think that in Spain it's never used in that way.
Jan
31
comment Usage of fea and rico
"sexual pleasure"? please, can you elaborate on that?
Jan
29
comment Need a phrase from a mobile phone application
Though it's correct, I think it doesn't sound very natural. For example the passive voice isn't usually used in this way. The one used with "se" is much more common. "volver a aplicar" is more common than "reaplicar". I'd prefer something like "AppName ha finalizado. Se ha vuelto a aplicar la configuración normal de tiempo de espera de la pantalla" or maybe a verb like "restablecer" or "restituir" which means restore: "AppName ha finalizado. Se ha restablecido la configuración normal de tiempo de espera de la pantalla"
Jan
29
answered Translation of “Who are you writing to”
Jan
28
comment Translation of “Who are you writing to”
@Eduardo From RAE: section 5.2.a: En el caso del complemento indirecto, la coaparición del pronombre átono es normalmente opcional y suele ser lo más frecuente, especialmente en la lengua oral: No (les) da importancia a los problemas; (Les) he contado nuestro secreto a unos amigos; (Le) han denegado la beca a Juan; (Le) he dicho la verdad a mi madre.... hay verbos, como gustar, encantar y sinónimos, que exigen la presencia del pronombre átono buscon.rae.es/dpdI/… So you are not right
Jan
28
comment Translation of “Who are you writing to”
@Eduardo "Con quien te escribes?" wouldn't mean exactly the same. It would mean that the person that you are writing to usually sends letters to you too. But the question in the OP means that you're writing to someone who maybe even doesn't know you even exists. It's not the same to send a letter to each other than sending a letter to someone.