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1

According to my intuitions (which follow from the rules of my own 'mental gramar and lexicon' of Spanish), the difference between the two (correct) sentences El vino es delicioso and El vino está delicioso is the following: I would use está only if I am already familiar, or even very familiar, with that specific brand and vintage of wine but find it ...


0

Typically, I use es when I am using an adjective, a property as another put it. There are some adjectives though that are both adjectives and past participles Mi tío está muerto To someone struggling with the understanding of ser vs estar, this can seem confusing to them as it would make a learner ask, "But won't he always be dead? Wouldn't you use es ...


3

I think that your rationale about using "ser" and "estar" are perfectly OK for this context. Unfortunately, there are lot of exceptions to the rules and sometimes those can't really be explained by Spanish speakers beyond "We say it like way". I would actually say La Coca Cola está riquísima referring to the brand, even if it is going to taste the ...


3

The verbal ending already existed in Latin conjugation. This is the amo (amar) indicative past perfect conjugation: amav-i amav-isti amav-it amav-imus amav-istis amav-erunt Second person amavisti evolved amaste in Spanish. In Latin the enclitic pronoun (suffixe) are not used. So there is no reason to think that this ...


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I'm not an expert, but I did some research and I would say that that specific suffix could be related to the personal pronoun te. It is stated here (Flexión section) that the flexive suffixes in verbs have the form Root + TAM + person, where TAM is a morpheme expressing time, aspect and mode. It seems that the morpheme used to express the person can also ...



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