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Yes, me gustas is correct way to say this. Gustar is "unusual" in the way that it doesn't mean "to like", but rather "to be liked by". It's absolutely not true that you only ever use gusta or gustan. Consider few examples for each grammatical person: Ya no te gusto — You don't like me anymore Me gustas — I like you Me gusta ...


The reason traces back to the Latin forms (and possibly farther back than that). In Latin, duco/ducere "to lead" changes "c" to "x" (c+s = x) to form the perfect tense: duxi, duxisti, duxit, ... This verb is the root of traducir, conducir, etc. Latin "x" normally corresponds with Spanish "j", hence conduje, condujiste, condujo, .... Although most Spanish ...


"Traducir" is an irregular verb that follows the conjugation model of "conducir". In Spanish there are a few irregular verbs, some of them are completely irregular and others just partially. At the conjugation site of Instituto de Verbología Hispánica you can find the 101 conjugation models in Spanish with the list of irregulars; and this data base allows ...


A remark besides the grammar. I'm not very sure what you mean exactly with I like you in english (from a person to another). But in spanish, if you say me gustas is in a more-than-friends sense. In a just-as-friends context, it's better to use me caes bien or me agradas. I think me gustas is more like I have a little crush on you. Be careful with that.


No, there is no difference, at least in meaning.


The difference is very clear-cut. You use the preterite for an action that happened at a distinct point in time. So to expand on your examples: Comí tacos ayer. I ate tacos yesterday. Besé a una chica en la fiesta anoche. I kissed a girl at the party last night. These were both specific points in time. The imperfect is used for actions that ...


As @vartec said, me gustas is correct. A great way to think about gustar in English is to imagine a word gust that means the opposite of disgust. Just like you would say that person disgusts me, with this imaginary word gust, you would say that person gusts me, meaning he or she pleases you, the opposite of disgust. Or, for the case is question, you gust ...


This bears a direct correspondence to the classic confusion between subjuntive and conditional, for hypothetical situations: Si pidieras ayuda, tus cosas marcharían mejor. (If you asked for help, things would go better) (Present Unreal Conditional) This is the correct form for the present case (subjuntive/conditional). It would be clearly wrong to ...


The advice I was always given was that there is no difference in the meaning, but to stick to one of them (ie don't mix and match) in a conversation/piece of text.


El problema es el subjuntivo. Por lo general, la respuesta correcta es tal y como señala Alenanno: "habría". Y lo correcto (por lo general) es "habría" pues debemos tener en cuenta que una frase con todos los verbos en modo subjuntivo es una frase incompleta (a menos que se pueda completar tácitamente por el contexto) que deja al interlocutor esperando que ...


I'd say: Si lo hubieran anotado, después no les habría costado tanto recordarlo. But, although it seems weird to me, according to my Spanish grammar book, in the second one you can use: condicional simple, pretérito imperfecto, condicional compuesto (indicativo) and pluscuamperfecto.


There is no difference in meaning. I have found that the -ra endings are more common in Latin American Spanish and the -se endings are more common in European Spanish. So I would use the one that represents the type of Spanish you are trying to speak.

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