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They're not talking about the difference between "z vs s", they're talking about the pronunciation of the letter "S" in Spain vs Mexico, well it's not too hard to explain, in Mexico the S is pronounced like the English one, at the end, at the beginning the pronunciation never changes, the Spaniards pronounce the letter S as a sound between sh and S of the ...


Both "b" and "v" are pronounced as a /b/ sound. Always. :) The only difference is in writing, not in speaking.


Normally the b and v sounds are equal in spanish. Maybe in some latin-american countries (Venezuela, maybe?) they are pronounced slightly differently, like in English, but you can pronounce them exactly the same with a /b/ sound. Actually, pronouncing them differently would sound strange in most (or all) spanish-speaking countries.


The graphemes b and v correspond to one phoneme with two different allophones. If b/v appears in between two vowels (as in "uva") or preceded by a vowel and followed by a liquid (as in "hablar" or "abrir"), it is pronounced as bilabial fricative/approximant (you close your lips almost completely, so only a bit of air can escape; compare to English v, a ...

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