New answers tagged

2

As you suspect (judging by the "indirect?"), this "lavar" is not intransitive but pronominal. In the DLE entry for "lavar" you can read: tr. Limpiar algo con agua u otro líquido. U. t. c. prnl. Read about pronominal verbs in the DPD page "Términos lingüísticos": 13. verbo pronominal. El que se construye en todas sus formas con un pronombre ...


1

In this case, the indirect object is a means to express the same thing the possessive expresses in English regarding the body parts; bare in mind that for Spanish-speaking people, possessives are redundant: for example in "my head aches", whose head could hurt, if not mine? You could look at it as the way Spanish expresses mediopassive voice (compare to, e....


2

The object pronouns play a necessary role to show who or what we are referring to. If it's not placed, the meaning can change. Lávate las manos = las manos tuyas. Lava las manos = ¿Cuáles? ¿Las tuyas o las mías? Vamos a lavarnos los dientes = nuestros dientes. Vamos a lavar los dientes = ¿Cuáles? ¿De quién? The same happens when using gustar: ...



Top 50 recent answers are included