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In this case le is a dative pronoun. You are correct in assuming it is redundant, as it actually is. :) Wikitionary has a very interesting entry on the subject that treats upon it in a usage note. It reads: Note that when a sentence contains a noun that is an indirect object, a redundant indirect object le (or its plural form les) is also required. ...

"a Pedro" es el complemento directo. En Wikipedia puedes leer: "El complemento directo en español siempre se puede sustituir por lo, la, los, las:" Por lo tanto, la única opción sería "Lo consideramos un buen maestro". Si intentas sustituir "un buen maestro" por alguna de las partículas citadas anteriormente verás como no tiene mucho sentido. Otra ...

As a native speaker I want to point out that not having 'le' in there sounds broken. I think the reason it's required is because you can have sentences without specific targets like this: "Yo di mi anillo." "I gave my ring." This has a kind of "broad" flavor, in that not only does the meaning lack a specific target, there is also a suggestion of the target ...

There is no difference in meaning. The verbs ayudar and obedecer are changing their patterns. Historically (in medieval Spanish) they would take a dative pronoun (le); nowadays they take mostly an accusative one (la/lo). See: DPD, “Leísmo”, sección 4e

Let's start by explaining what the indirect object is not. The indirect object can't be se/ellos, because whatever the IO is, it has to match the pronoun "os" used in the original question. That said, I interpret this question as "who is making your beds?" We know the indirect object is "you", which is inferred from the possessive pronoun"your", just as ...

After reading about the Indirect Object, I think the answer is that in the sentence "Miguel le dio a su novia un anillo." Miguel's girlfriend is the indirect object and not the direct object as I had stated in the question. In that case, "le" is the correct indirect object pronoun to be used, to give direction to the action of giving of the ring (like amr ...

Being reflexive is not an invariant characteristic: it's not preserved under translation. In this context, to take (llevarse) is reflexive in Spanish. What se at the end of the verb means is take (with them), which in English might sound obvious, but in Spanish it's necessary. There are other instances of this phenomenon: the right translation of This ...

First of all let me tell you that asking isn't dumb, none of us born knowing it all, so don't worry about asking, in fact is better than keeping your doubt! I'll work with your example so you got the point easily. You can't say: ¿Cómo tú llamas? because it's literally like if you say: What is you name? Instead your teacher told you that the correct way is: ...

Direct Answer to Your Question Pronouns are words that substitute for nouns. In the case of ¿Como te llamas?, you are using what is alternatively called a pronominal verb or a reflexive verb and these require reflexive pronouns such as me, te, se, nos, and os. At an elementary level you will use these verbs in two main contexts. Actions where the person ...

I suppose you were learning about 'verbos pronominales'1, those verb end in se, eg. laver*se*, llamar*se*, ir*se* etc. eg. 1: I wash myself = (Yo) me lavo The verb is lavarse Who/what is washing? I wash: yo lavo Who/what am I washing? Myself/me: me eg. 2: You help me = (Tu) me ayudas The verb is ayudarse Who/what is helping? You help: tu ayudas Who/what ...

The position of those pronouns before or after the verb is given by the rules which are in the section 3 of this link of RAE. A quick summary of what RAE says in that link: They have to go before the verb: with verbs in indicative mood (it's archaic to place them after the verb): with verbs in subjuctive mood (for non exhorting verbs) They have to go ...