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Even though those are, indeed, Latin abbreviations, we don't use them in Spanish. I don't agree much with ejemplo dado, anyway; in most cases I would use por ejemplo or, if you want an abbreviation, p. ej.


I think that transformation is only when the /h/ or /f/ is the first letter. This transformation is related (in theory) to the preromanic languages, this case it's atributed to euskara substrat that also influences de aspirated /h/ is Gascon language. Sources: Historia del español Where we found: la desaparición de f- inicial en muchas palabras que en ...


You are right. This phenomenon goes all the way back to Vulgar Latin and applies to other Romance languages, as well. First of all, a little phonetics background: the vowels /e/ and /i/ are what phoneticians call front vowels, because they are articulated in the frontal part of the mouth, unlike, for example, /a/, /o/ and /u/, which are articulated more to ...


Pues parece ser que es a causa de las abreviaturas de "et" en los escritos medievales y que no se fijó su uso como copulativa (en lugar de "i") hasta 1726. En el enlace de Etimologías de chile: origen de la letra Y está explicado. En la Edad Media la producción de documentos escritos, como ya sabemos, era manual y para agilizar los procesos de copia y ...


Latin abbreviations like "e.g." (also v.g. with the same meaning) and "i.e." are commonly used in "standard" (I mean, this is not snob or unusual) Spanish (specially written). If I had to translate a document/text from English to Spanish I wouldn't dare to replace them by their meaning. So my answer to your question ("Am I correct...") is "yes". Here is a ...


According to the wikipedia article, the C (and G) pronunciation diverged because of phonological reasons, it seems that quite early, and in common (at least in a first phase) with other romance languages (french, italian). See also the (in english, more general) wikipedia articles: C and G

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