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13

Even though those are, indeed, Latin abbreviations, we don't use them in Spanish. I don't agree much with ejemplo dado, anyway; in most cases I would use por ejemplo or, if you want an abbreviation, p. ej.


7

They were speaking Latin In 711, the Moors took over Hispania. While Vulgar Latin was dominant, due to the influence of the Moors, it took on a different form, integrating Arabic and forms of a related dialect called Mozarabic. Arabic was the most influential language in the development of Spanish; it is estimated that approximately 3000-4000 words in ...


5

I think that transformation is only when the /h/ or /f/ is the first letter. This transformation is related (in theory) to the preromanic languages, this case it's atributed to euskara substrat that also influences de aspirated /h/ is Gascon language. Sources: Historia del español Where we found: la desaparición de f- inicial en muchas palabras que en ...


5

You are right. This phenomenon goes all the way back to Vulgar Latin and applies to other Romance languages, as well. First of all, a little phonetics background: the vowels /e/ and /i/ are what phoneticians call front vowels, because they are articulated in the frontal part of the mouth, unlike, for example, /a/, /o/ and /u/, which are articulated more to ...


4

Pues parece ser que es a causa de las abreviaturas de "et" en los escritos medievales y que no se fijó su uso como copulativa (en lugar de "i") hasta 1726. En el enlace de Etimologías de chile: origen de la letra Y está explicado. En la Edad Media la producción de documentos escritos, como ya sabemos, era manual y para agilizar los procesos de copia y ...


2

Latin abbreviations like "e.g." (also v.g. with the same meaning) and "i.e." are commonly used in "standard" (I mean, this is not snob or unusual) Spanish (specially written). If I had to translate a document/text from English to Spanish I wouldn't dare to replace them by their meaning. So my answer to your question ("Am I correct...") is "yes". Here is a ...


1

The distinction between Latin and Spanish (or Catalan, Portuguese, French, Italian, etc.) is inherently somewhat arbitrary. These languages went through a series of stages, some of them poorly documented. Until very recently, most people would also have spoken a local variant that didn't evolve into a modern, standardized language. What can be said is that ...


1

That's not "Latin"... That's a variant which belongs to the language group of so-called Romance Language(including French etc), clearly vulgar Latin mixed with local peculiarities, which differed a lot with the original/formal Latin in Roma. Also remember that Spain was dominated for a few hundred years by Visigoths(some kind of germanic people) before the ...


1

According to the wikipedia article, the C (and G) pronunciation diverged because of phonological reasons, it seems that quite early, and in common (at least in a first phase) with other romance languages (french, italian). See also the (in english, more general) wikipedia articles: C and G



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