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Why do some sentences use es for it's and other omit es altogether. How do I know when to use es? Because the meaning is different. The meaning of "es" is "is", not "it's" No es lo mismo = (eso/esto/aquello, etc) no es lo mismo = It is not the same. This is not the same. That is not the same. Note the meaning of "is" in this case. But in: No vale mucho = ...


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Without "technical" complexity 'I would develop a system that would make kids want to learn', What is what would do? I would develop a system = Desarrollaría un sistema What is will this system would make? kids want to learn = que los niños quieran aprender Then add the relation (would make) Desarrollaría un sistema que haga que los niños quieran ...


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This issue is explained in the links in the comments. I'm posting this question as a translation of the entry in the RAE regarding "fuera" vs "afuera". Afuera: Adverb of place that, with verbs of movement, both explicit or implicit, means "to the outside", "outwards", "exiting the place where the speaker is or is referring to": «No, primero ...


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Copio el fragmento que hay en Fundéu (asesoradapor la RAE). Según señala el Diccionario panhispánico de dudas, con verbos de movimiento explícito o implícito los adverbios de lugar fuera y afuera (‘hacia el exterior’) se emplean indistintamente, especialmente en España: Si quieres pelear, vete afuera/fuera. Con verbos de estado y en casos sin ...


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It is exactly the same. Both have the same meaning, which indicates something that is outside or the direction that you'll follow. You can translate it as a: out, outisde, away or similar. La pelota está fuera de la casa (The ball is outside the house) Vamos fuera esta noche (We're going out tonight) You can add an -a at the beginning, to form ...


3

It is one of the many great debates in the Spanish language, and is really a result of two quite different uses of the conjugation: Iría a clase si no lloviese/lloviera. Clearly indicates something that is not occurring, will not occur, and has not occurred. Thus, one could make a solid argument for a non-indicative mood. On the other hand, you also ...


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That... Which! Pretty much anytime, in English, where you'd use the word which or that, you would use que in your translation/interpretation. It's a fool-proof method, though, I never recommend using English as a basis for understanding Spanish, unless it actually seem relevant / has some kind of linguistic similarity The best way to think of it, though ...


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I am from Chile, and for me, natural form is "en la mañana".


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If you are talking about somethng that happens usually 'on the morning', it happens several days on their mornings, and so you can construct a phrase like "en las mañanas": "En las mañanas de los domingos hay mercado en la plaza". But exactly the same meaning is conveyed by "En la mañana de los domingos hay mercado en la plaza". Otherwise, if you are ...


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The sentence is an if/then sentence with a subordinate clause. These are conjugated with the conditional in the "if" phrase and the subjunctive in the "then" phrase, like this (from the accepted answer): Desarrollaría un sistema que haga que los niños quieran aprender. but you ask "why the second que?" This is a relative pronoun (according to the accepted ...


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Note: this is what I’ve been taught in high-school. Generally, grammar in high-school isn’t too accurate, but I hope it'll do here. Tl;dr: you need a "que" to mark a change in the subject. It's optional in the cases where the subject of the subordinate is present (both as a subject or as an object) in the main clause, being necessary if the subordinate ...


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All languages have different ways to express things, influenced especially by people culture, so you cannot translate literally from one language to another. You need to add cultural variable. For example, "It’s not worth much" may be literally translated as "No es mucho valer". This could be understood, however, correct translation should be "No vale la ...


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Día domingo is not day Saturday, but day Sunday, which makes a big difference! I believe the origin and reason why it sounds natural is in Latin where the full name for Sunday is Dies Dominica, which means the Day of the Lord. So the current Spanish noun for Sunday is actually a former adjective phrase "of the Lord" :)


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The meaningful translation is: "Desarrollaría un sistema que haga que los niños quieran aprender". First, you need to use the correct verb mood (present tense of subjunctive mood). Look at "Haga" and "Quieran" forms. Both are present of subjunctive mood from "Hacer" and "Querer", respectively. Second, as a rule, subjunctive mood should have normally the ...


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We normally use that expression when talking about the day without specifying the exact date. It's a way to refer to the day in a generic way. It could be any sunday of the year, no specific time of the year.


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It's also about the context: It's all I need => **It** is all I need => **Esto/eso** es todo lo que necesito Is all I need => Es todo lo que necesito In Spanish you can omit the Subject or the Objeto directo if the context makes clear what you're talking about. In the case of the Subject this is called "Sujeto Eliptico" meaning the subject can ...


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I've been taught at school this construction is called aposición. Here, "domingo" would be a "complemento de nombre en aposición" of "día": Aposición. Construcción en la que un sustantivo o un grupo nominal complementa directamente, sin nexo expreso, a otro sustantivo o grupo nominal. La aposición puede ser especificativa, como en Tu amigo el frutero ha ...


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And there are many other examples: El planeta Marte El juez González El abuelo Pedro La nave "Rosita" La reina Isabel It is a common and simple grammatical procedure called "juxtaposition" . You can search for "sustantivos yuxtapuestos", two nouns together without nexus.


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Because some constructions in English can't be literally translated into Spanish. (Also converse.) The classic it's not worth it = no vale la pena is not translated with the es. Some other expressions can also be translated with or without the es, like it's true = es cierto or just cierto. Mostly, you'll learn how to remove the es as a part of phrases.


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With a big accented TU. (Like you were about to shout it.) Estoy en TU país, por lo tanto hablaré Español.


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As Pablo explains, "por la mañana" or "por las mañanas" sound more natural to Spanish speakers. The difference in meaning between them is almost non-existant except for its usage in certain contexts: Por las mañanas is used to talk about habits. Por la mañana can be used to both talk about habits and specific actions. Salgo a correr por la mañana ...


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Being from Spain, "por la mañana" sounds more natural to me. If I had to choose between "en la mañana" or "en las mañanas" I would choose "en la mañana", but I guess both would be correct, maybe one is more suitable in one context than the other. But here in Spain we say "por la mañana", maybe "en la mañana" is from latin america, but I don't know.


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-¿Qué quieres? -A Emma Es incorrecto si lo interpretas como "que amas" (mientras que en el sentido de "que deseas" estaría bien), mientras que -¿A quién quieres? -A Emma es correcto. Esto sería correcto en estructura pero no tendría ningún sentido: -¿Que quieres? -Emma "A Emma" aunque parece un complemento indirecto es en realidad directo. Los ...


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I believe it's better to, and more understandable to a beginner/intermediate speaker, to combine the de with antes -- antes de. Before running, I stretch. Antes de correr me estiro. If you wanted append this to a clause or something like that, then you could get fancy and use antes de que.. before [conjugated verb here] Before I run, I ...


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I think that deeper, more profound answers require one to appeal to Linguistics. So I Googled "semantics of spanish prepositions" which revealed the following that should assist: Huerta, Beth Lynn (2009). The semantics of the spanish prepositions en, a, and de: A cognitive approach (Order No. 3372152). Available from ProQuest Dissertations & Theses ...


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"Había" is the past pefect as in "had". "Ya había" is as remarking that something was done before. Example: I had eaten (yo había comido). I had eaten already (yo ya había comido).


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Es una construcción sui generis, coloquial, con sentido enfático y ponderativo. Es cercana (aunque no idéntica, en mi opinión) a la acepción de "su" que menciona la respuesta de fedorqui. Hay también una relación, creo que más estrecha, con la construcción "lo suyo"; del DRAE: loc. pronom. coloq. Pondera la dificultad, mérito o importancia de algo. ...


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No wonder you find this puzzling: from the grammar point of view, this specific construction is quite difficult. I've found a 15-page study of this construction that explains it pretty well, though. In short: a construction such as It is difficult to explain can also be written in English as Explaining it is difficult. I'll use a different subject to make ...


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Lo indica la RAE en la tercera acepción de "su": adj. poses. 3.ª pers. coloq. Antepuesto a un nombre propio, aporta valor afectivo o enfático. Siempre está hablando de su Luis. Es decir, cuando se dice ya tiene sus años, el adjetivo sus enfatiza años dando la connotación de que ya tiene muchos años. Otro ejemplo: Bojan prometía mucho como ...


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Si tú supieras lo que te he esperado I'm afraid "If you knew that I've been waiting for you" isn't a good translation. "Lo" in "lo que" is the article used when the following noun is omitted: El aspecto más interesante = lo más interesante I omitted "aspecto" there because it didn't really add any meaning, and I did so by changing "el" to "lo". ...


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Strictly speaking, it would translate as "that of", i.e. "that [thing] of my brother". But in English you use 's for possession, that's why you don't find a 1:1 relation.


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Generally speaking, the perfective aspect refers to finished actions, while the imperfective case refers to unfinished actions. But this finished does not mean now, but in the moment implied by the full sentence. I'll take a variation from your example, taken from DGaleano's comment: Tú estuviste en México el año pasado, ¿verdad? Tú estabas en ...


3

El de can be translated by just the use of the genitive: My brother's too. In the Spanish construction, the article works as a pronoun; el means el coche, in this case. Using the noun instead of the article/pronoun: El coche de mi hermano también.


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El de mi hermano means: The one of my brother Your question lacks some context to know what are we referring to with el de or the one. There could be some cases where el de mi hermano, también translates to my brother, too, but there's insufficient information to know if that's the case or not.


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La primera está correcta y es la forma más usada estructuralmente. La segunda, aunque correcta también, a un nativo le 'suena' un poco raro, en mi opinión.



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