Tag Info

New answers tagged

0

The other answers have focused on using gustar in the structure that it's normally taught in Spanish classes where *gustar takes an indirect object pronoun. While the most common use is absolutely either gusta or gustan (see this Google N-Gram, I omitted valid forms that weren't found so I could fit it all in a single search), the other forms, as you can ...


-2

No, it is not correct. At least not grammatically correct. While it may be accepted in casual conversation, gustar is conjugated with either a singular or a plural ending. The person is not doing the action, rather represents a single noun that has an effect on a person. ie. Juan a mí me gusta. or Tû a mí me gusta. In this case, the subject pronoun ...



Top 50 recent answers are included