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The other answers have focused on using gustar in the structure that it's normally taught in Spanish classes where *gustar takes an indirect object pronoun. While the most common use is absolutely either gusta or gustan (see this Google N-Gram, I omitted valid forms that weren't found so I could fit it all in a single search), the other forms, as you can ...


No, it is not correct. At least not grammatically correct. While it may be accepted in casual conversation, gustar is conjugated with either a singular or a plural ending. The person is not doing the action, rather represents a single noun that has an effect on a person. ie. Juan a mí me gusta. or Tû a mí me gusta. In this case, the subject pronoun ...

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