The imperfect subjuntive has two forms. For example: Ojalá viniera. Ojalá viniese. I think both has the same meaning. However, is there any subtle difference?
I've heard that there used to be another tense in Spanish called the "future-subjunctive" ¡A donde fueres, haz lo que vieres! I've heard the above means in a literal sense, "to where you will ...
Que todo te vaya bien. Que nos reunamos a las 6. I've seen, and used, que in this form - it's as if the verb has been dropped, say, espero. What is the origin of this usage? Is it ...
What is the rule for conjugating verbs in the vos form in the present subjunctive? If it varies by region, what are the differences?