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In a previous question, it was established that the word "churir" means "to wrinkle."

"Churros," refers to a certain "wrinkled" pastry. Given their resemblance, is the one word essentially a derivative of the other?

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I too am very interested in this answer. Surely, the chur in both words share a significant root. The ch has a wide occurrence in itself, bit.ly/1prUUfb, even Arabic uses this sound, so it's hard to conclude it being of latin or arabic origin. –  dockeryz Apr 24 at 0:11
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According to RAE, the origin of the word churro is onomatopoeic (from the sound the dough makes when fried). It's similar to chirriar. Churir is not standard Spanish, so it may be harder to trace its origins. –  rsanchez Apr 24 at 7:41
    
@rsanchez, you should make this comment an answer, because it seems the right one (to me, at least) –  BorrajaX Apr 24 at 10:53
    
what's churir? i'm Spanish and never heard that word! –  rupps Apr 24 at 20:48
    
@rupps: The previous question was "linked to" in the fourth word of my own question. –  Tom Au Apr 24 at 22:18

1 Answer 1

up vote 2 down vote accepted

The etymology of the word "churro" is an onomatopoeia of the sound of frying dough, so no, it's not the least bit related to "churir."

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