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In another question, a Wikipedia article was quoted saying:

The letters ⟨b⟩ and ⟨v⟩ were originally simply known as be and ve. However, there is no longer any distinction between the sounds of these letters—their accepted names are be and uve.

What were the historical sounds of the letters b and v? When did they change to their current forms as pronounced today?

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up vote 6 down vote accepted

En efecto, en español, las dos letras representan el sonido bilabial sonoro /b/. Las dos letras llegaron al español provenientes del latín, en donde sí tenían sonidos diferentes (bilabial para la b y labidental para la v) pero, en español siempre han tenido el mismo sonido, salvo por algunas excepciones regionales (por ejemplo en Valencia, en los hispanoparlantes de Cataluña y en ciertas regiones de América) debidas a efectos espontáneos de la pronunciación en tales regiones.

Aparte de las anteriores excepciones regionales, la distinción en la pronunciación de la b y la v es considerada un error por la Real Academia Española desde 1726, aunque hasta comienzos del siglo XX hubo cierta ambigüedad y confusión ya que en la Ortografía y la Gramática se recomendaba la pronunciación labiodental de la b (una decisión un tanto chauvinista inspirada en la distinción que otras lenguas hacían entre los sonidos de la b y la v).

La situación quedó zanjada definitivamente en 1911 cuando la Real Academia Española dejó de recomendar la distinción.

El numeral 3 de esta entrada del Diccionario panhispánico de dudas contiene detalles adicionales.

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Many thanks! +1 – Richard Nov 22 '11 at 13:26
As a side note, a regional exception occurs in the north of Mexico, as I was taught as a child (less than 40 years ago) that the correct pronunciation is the one that Gonzalo states in the first paragraph. – Omar Salinas Nov 23 '11 at 17:05
A regional exception also occurs in areas of Patagonia, where I was taught at school that V is vibrated. I have seen this also in other regions of Argentina and Chile. Agree with Mexico too, since I have live there and have heard the 'labio-dental' V in some people. – Lola Berwoots Jun 5 '15 at 14:16
@LolaBerwoots there is no such “vibrated” sound in Spanish. The term in English you're looking for (vibrante in Spanish) is either flap (vibrante simple) or trill (vibrante múltiple). The historical pronunciation is [v] not [ɾ~r], which is a voiced labiodental fricative (not flap/trill). I'm not even sure a labiodental trill exists in any language. In any case, what one is taught, and what is actually used in the language are two very different things. In English as children we're taught that sentences can't end with prepositions. And in English linguistics, we learn that is wrong. – guifa Jun 5 '15 at 16:08
@guifa I call labio-dental a vibrational V, so any reader can understand (mind that we ar etalking about Spanish here, not English). Technically speaking we would call it a labio-dental. Children and people in general, understand what a vibration is, but not the meaning of labio-dental. I hope that clarifies it. – Lola Berwoots Jun 5 '15 at 16:17

At Spain, you'll hear people using different sounds for b and v if they grew on bilingual environments or families (talking Spanish and Catalan), since the Catalan language enforces the difference.

So that occurs exactly at Valencia, Cataluña and Balearic Islands. At those islands we also have a 'nice feature' (among others) where some people are unable to pronounce the 'ch' sound from Spanish words like "chocolate", making it sound /xo/ like it sounds in the word "shower" in English :) This also comes from the different pronunciation of Catalan words containing ch.

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Agreed, same happens in certain parts of America, as the result of either, a natural process or educational process. – Lola Berwoots Jun 5 '15 at 20:52

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