Take the 2-minute tour ×
Spanish Language Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for students, teachers, and linguists wanting to discuss the finer points of the Spanish language. It's 100% free, no registration required.

Lately, I've started noticing how some Spanish nouns are merely past-participles of verbs (with the addition of a "-ado/-ada" suffix), and that those verbs are sometimes derived from other nouns by adding an agency prefix (like how "Em-" is added to "barca"/"boat" to make "embarcar"/"get on a boat").

But I've noticed something odd with what happens to the genders when this happens in a few words, specifically: "empanada" and "emparedado"

"Empanada" seems to come from "empanar" (to wrap in bread), which must come from "pan" (bread) and "Emparedado" seems to come from "emparedar" (to wall in), which much come from "pared" (wall)

What I find curious is that the gender changes during this: "pan" (male) gives rise to "empanada" (female), while... "pared" (female) gives rise to "emparedado" (male)

Now, the gender doesn't always switch. For example: "papel" (male) gives rise to "empapelado" (male)

So, I was just wondering, are there any guidelines to whether the derived word becomes male or female? Does it depend, at all, upon the word it is derived from?

share|improve this question

3 Answers 3

Your derivations (pan -> empanar -> empanada ; pared -> emparedar -> emparedado ) are right.

There is nothing odd with the gender, though.

In the sequence

1. pared (substantive; feminine ) 
2. emparedar (verb ; no gender) 
3. emparedado/a  (participle, works as an adjective; which can in turn be substantivized)

the original gender (la pared) is already lost when the verb (emparedar) is formed. And then, when we use the verb (as participle) to make an adjetive, its gender has nothing to do with the gender of the remote substantive, but must instead follow the usual concordance rule: it takes the gender from the substantive it modifies:

So, we'd say "sandwich emparedado", "bocadillo emparedado", "cadáver emparedado", but also "tortilla emparedada", "mujer emparedada", etc.

Further, when that adjetive works as a substantive (because the real substantive is tacitly assumed), the gender applies still to that same (tacit) substantive:

el emparedado = el sandwich emparedado ( or "el bocadillo emparedado")

la empanada = la carne empanada

In the above: "sandwich/bodadillo" is masculine, and so we say emparedado". "carne" is feminine, and so we say "empanada".

More examples:

   justicia -> ajusticiar -> (hombre) ajusticiado / (mujer) ajusticiada
   malta -> maltear -> (leche) malteada / (café) malteado
share|improve this answer
    
Thanks for the answer. I think you used "genre" (a group of things of similar style) instead of "gender" (male or female). –  BrianA Sep 23 '13 at 16:57
    
@BrianA ooops, fixed, thanks –  leonbloy Sep 23 '13 at 17:01

There are no guidelines because, in each case, the nouns refer to different things. Usually, a whole on one side and a constituent on the other.

An emparedado is called so because it consists of some food put between two paredes (to slices of bread, in fact); there is no reason why these two paredes should have the same gender as the whole emparedado. Same happens with the empanada and the pan, which is one of its constituents.

The case with the empapelado is somewhat different because it refers directly to the papel which is used for a special purpose. Nevertheless, the gender could have varied, same as we have words with different gender that refer to the same thing, even similar words (e.g. hueco is masculin, oquedad is feminine).

The only case where you can find an easy rule for the gender of derived nouns is when the suffix used gives you the gender. In this case it is not so and I'm afraid you just have to learn each case separately.

share|improve this answer

I believe it could be, at least in some cases, the same that happens in Galician. There is a distinction between feminine and masculine forms of the same word: size. Feminine is usually bigger than masculine. So a "cesta" (basket) is bigger than a "cesto" (smaller basket); a "bolsa" (bag) is bigger than a "bolso" (hand bag); a "cuba" (tub) is bigger than a "cubo" (bucket).

I think it might have to do with the vowels used, since "a" is a more open vowel than "o", but it's only speculation on my part :-)

I've found an article when this use of gender is explained (in spanish, sorry; go to the end of the article): http://www.wikilengua.org/index.php/G%C3%A9nero_gramatical

Hope it helps.

share|improve this answer

Your Answer

 
discard

By posting your answer, you agree to the privacy policy and terms of service.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.