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The question is pretty much in the title. If I have the verb lavarse, I know to make the imperative I use lávate.

But what to do with a verb like afeitarse? Is it afeitate? My spellcheck thinks not. But then where should the accent go?


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Where is the diphtong in that verbs? – jachguate Oct 16 '12 at 1:14
up vote 3 down vote accepted

In Spain we say "aféitate", but in places where voseo is used they say "afeitate" (stress in the second "a", but I'm not sure if it has graphical accent without written accent).

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"afeitate" with the stree on the secon a can't have an accent mark according to the ortographic rules. – Laura Oct 11 '12 at 6:42
I know, but I'm not sure how they are applied in places where voseo is used, or if there any exception for those cases. Check this link. It's full of afeitáte, bañáte, cambiáte... But I'm not sure about its correctness, since there are some other which must have an accent, that don't have it... – MikMik Oct 11 '12 at 7:26
Ok, just checked the DPD, and it's clear it must not have a written accent. Prior to 1999, apparently, it did. I'll update my answer. – MikMik Oct 11 '12 at 7:32
I think we should stick to a simple answer. Posting exceptions (e.g. voseo) is very confusing for learners. The answer is simple: lavarse->lávate; afeitarse->aféitate. – user1025 Oct 11 '12 at 11:44
@Pablo: It's not so simple, in my opinion. There are places where lavarse -> lávate is not the rule, but rather lavarse -> lavate. – MikMik Oct 11 '12 at 12:11

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