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How is the letter 's' (or the 's' sound) pronounced in Spain?

We know that following groups of syllables

  1. se, si, sa, so, su
  2. ce, ci, za, zo, zu

can be pronunced in 3 different ways:

  • "distinción"
    1. /s/ + vowel
    2. /θ/ + vowel
  • "seseo"
    1. /s/ + vowel
    2. /s/ + vowel
  • "ceceo"
    1. /θ/ + vowel
    2. /θ/ + vowel

The question is: approximately how many people in Spain use each of these pronunciations?

I don't ask for Latin America because I know they use "seseo".

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This appears to be nearly the same question as How is the letter 's' pronounced in Spain?. As that one is older and has more answers, I'm closing this is favor of that—but please feel free to add the details from this question there. – Dori Nov 16 '11 at 0:06
@Dori I'm not asking the same thing and this is much more detailed (for ex. I'm not talking only about 's'). Anyway you have the chance to merge the 2 questions and their answers as an admin. – bluish Nov 18 '11 at 7:54
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The other question is extremely confusingly named, and posed. Without a bunch of fixing I don't think it makes a good "master" question to redirect other closed dupes to in its current state. – hippietrail Dec 2 '11 at 12:16

marked as duplicate by Dori Nov 16 '11 at 0:06

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

1 Answer

up vote 1 down vote

Seseo - used entirely in the Canary Islands and rarely in Andalusia.

Ceceo - can be often found in western and southern Andalusia.

You can safely say that in the rest of the Spain both sounds are correctly distinguished.

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"Correctly" distinguished? What makes one way correct over another? – Richard Nov 16 '11 at 17:51
I meant: they pronounce each sound as it is supposed to be: θ for c/z, s for s. – vemv Nov 16 '11 at 18:34
This seems to answer a specific question I also wanted to ask that doesn't seem to be clearly addressed in the so-called duplicate. – hippietrail Dec 2 '11 at 12:37

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