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Please advise which one of the following is correct for the English speaking "No one is guaranteed to have a tomorrow"?
If all correct, which one is the best saying?

  1. Nadie se garantiza tener un mañana.
  2. Nadie tiene garantizado el mañana.
  3. Nadie tiene garantizado un mañana.

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For below version:

A nadie se le garantiza tener un mañana.

  1. "se garantiza" is passive verb?
  2. "What is "le" referring to? Is it "pronombre acusativo" or "pronombre dative"?
  3. What is the subject and the object respectively?

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  1. Nadie se garantiza tener un mañana.
  2. A nadie se le garantiza tener un mañana.

Why version 1 is incorrect? Isn't it a passive verb version?

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Your accept rate is too low, there are some of your questions that have a valid answer and you haven't accepted them: spanish.stackexchange.com/questions/2460/… If you don't accept answers, users won't help you for free. Show that their answers were useful for you by giving them some reputation. spanish.stackexchange.com/faq#howtoask –  JoulSauron Jul 7 '12 at 9:01
    
@JoulSauron: thanks for your reminding. I am not very used to the use of stack exchange yet so I missed giving rates. Now I've go through my questions and have given the rates. From answers I didn't accept is because I am still not very understand (maybe for Spanish speakers they will understand it very well but for me, as a beginner, I am still not quite understand it) so I did not give a rate. –  Cadenza Jul 7 '12 at 9:55
    
Then you should ask again for more clarification ;) –  JoulSauron Jul 7 '12 at 14:03
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@JoulSauron: I will if I know how to say it. :) –  Cadenza Jul 7 '12 at 14:27
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As a first answer I would say both 2 and 3 could be correct, 1 souds funny, but without context it's really difficult to answer (the same goes for a lot of your questions I'm afraid) –  Laura Jul 9 '12 at 6:47

2 Answers 2

Based on the question's tag "gramatica" both the second and third options are correct.

The first one only needs a little adjustment:

A nadie se le garantiza tener un mañana.

As a native speaker I do not feel capable of giving a full grammatical explanation as to why this is correct though.

That being said, if what you are looking for is the exact literal translation, I would say it would be the first one with the adjustment I am proposing.

UPDATE

I believe that the request to analyze the sentence would have been better in another question but I will try to do it here:

The subject would be "nadie" since it is what/who we are talking about.

"Se le garantiza" is the verb which is a reflexive verb with an additional (if I am not mistaken) dative pronoun or "pronombre dativo":

Garantizar - verb
Garantizarse - reflexive verb
Garantizarsele - not sure what this would be called

"Tener" would be an adverb since it is acting on the verb "garantizarsele".

The object would be "un mañana".

Hope this helps.

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Hi, what would you recommend to say in Spanish for the similar meaning that in English? –  Cadenza Jul 10 '12 at 3:10
    
@Cadenza Any one of the three would be ok. They are all saying the same thing just slightly using different words. –  Sergio Romero Jul 10 '12 at 13:33
    
I've edited my question. Please advise. –  Cadenza Jul 10 '12 at 14:39
    
Hi, I've edited my question. Hope you can help. –  Cadenza Jul 13 '12 at 17:24

My difficulty with this is that the 'No one is guaranteed...' portion seems to be poor grammar and we are faced with the challenge of translating rather than interpreting the meaning.

If I were to interpret this I would simply state No hay garantía de que mañana vendrá or perhaps, No hay que garantizar que mañana vendrá

I am a native English speaker so take this for what it's worth.

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Hi, if 'No one is gauranteed...' is poor in grammar, what would you recommend? –  Cadenza Jul 10 '12 at 3:08

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